CivilsIASPrep.comUPSC PYQs: Polity & Governance
Review complete published questions grouped by subject: Polity & Governance.
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Questions
- A senior official discovers that a private vaccine-distribution contractor is sacrificing quality for profit. Despite vested-interest pressure, he reports the matter to vigilance authorities and stops the contract to protect citizens. Which public-administration principle is most directly demonstrated?2026 · Prelims GS1 · Polity & Governance · Public administration ethics
- A proposed waste facility near a sacred tribal hamlet triggers conflict with urban residents seeking better waste disposal. Which measures aid responsible resolution? 1. First acknowledge cultural concerns. 2. Proceed immediately because urban interests outweigh a small group's concerns. 3. Establish multi-stakeholder dialogue. 4. Conduct and transparently share an independent environmental/social impact assessment.2026 · Prelims GS1 · Polity & Governance · Conflict resolution
- A civil servant receives confidential but unproven adverse information about a shortlisted public-works contractor. Full public disclosure may be defamatory, while silently ignoring it undermines transparency. What is the best immediate course?2026 · Prelims GS1 · Polity & Governance · Administrative ethics
- Under Article 13 of the Constitution, X says 'law' includes ordinances, orders, rules and regulations but rejects Y's statement that custom or usage having the force of law is also included. Which conclusion is correct?2026 · Prelims GS1 · Polity & Governance · Article 13
- Consider claims that the Constitution contains no Article: 1. officially calling it the Constitution of India; 2. repealing the Indian Independence Act 1947 and Government of India Act 1935; 3. specifying 26 January 1950 as commencement. Which conclusion is correct?2026 · Prelims GS1 · Polity & Governance · Constitutional provisions
- Regarding disability policy in India: 1. The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act was enacted in 2018. 2. Sugamya Bharat targets accessibility in built environment, transport and ICT. 3. NDFDC was set up under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs. Which are correct?2026 · Prelims GS1 · Polity & Governance · Disability rights
- Regarding SC/ST provisions: 1. Tribal areas of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram are governed by the Fifth Schedule. 2. Certain Scheduled Tribe members in specified areas can receive income-tax exemptions on specified incomes. 3. The Constitution provides reservation in Panchayats for women belonging to SCs/STs. Which conclusion is correct?2026 · Prelims GS1 · Polity & Governance · SC ST safeguards
- Parliamentary questions: 1. Unstarred questions seek oral answers. 2. Starred questions seek written answers. 3. Supplementary questions cannot be asked on unstarred questions. Which conclusion is correct?2026 · Prelims GS1 · Polity & Governance · Parliamentary procedure
- About Parliament's Committee on the Welfare of SCs/STs, consider: 1. Its chair is appointed by the Rajya Sabha Chairman. 2. It has 20 Rajya Sabha and 10 Lok Sabha members. 3. The Social Justice Minister may be a member although other ministers may not. 4. Members serve two-year terms. Which conclusion is correct?2026 · Prelims GS1 · Polity & Governance · Parliamentary committees
- Regarding Mission Sudarshan Chakra, consider: 1. It seeks stronger air and ballistic-missile defence along with aerial offensive capability. 2. It emphasizes rapid, precise, powerful responses and strategic autonomy. 3. The announced vision includes an expanded security shield covering public/strategic places by 2035. Which are correct?2026 · Prelims GS1 · Polity & Governance · Defence policy
- Consider bridges linking India with neighbouring countries: 1. Maitri Setu over the Feni connects Ramgarh (India) with Sabroom (Bangladesh). 2. Jhulaghat suspension bridge links India with Myanmar. 3. Mechi bridge links Panitanki Bypass in India with Kakarvitta in Nepal. Which are correct?2026 · Prelims GS1 · Polity & Governance · Neighbourhood connectivity
- Regarding Zero FIR under BNSS 2023: 1. It can be used even when the offence is outside the police station's territorial jurisdiction, including the stated cognizable/non-cognizable formulation. 2. The officer-in-charge may conduct a preliminary enquiry with competent prior permission in applicable cases. 3. The informant must necessarily submit the information electronically. Which are correct?2026 · Prelims GS1 · Polity & Governance · BNSS and Zero FIR
- Three Government-organisation rows are given: CEIB—coordination among enforcement agencies—Home Ministry; SFIO—complex corporate fraud—Finance Ministry; CBI—preserving probity/public life and national economic health—Department of Personnel. How many rows are fully correct?2026 · Prelims GS1 · Polity & Governance · Government organisations
- Which among these international instruments have not been ratified by India? 1. ILO Employment Policy Convention. 2. ILO Abolition of Forced Labour Convention. 3. International Convention on Migrant Workers and their Families. 4. Fourth Geneva Convention on protection of civilians in war. 5. Convention on the Reduction of Statelessness.2026 · Prelims GS1 · Polity & Governance · International conventions
- Regarding the AI Impact Summit 2026 in New Delhi: 1. Its foundational Sutras were People, Planning and Progress. 2. A cited Charter for Democratic Diffusion of AI was binding on participants. 3. The New Delhi Declaration was organized around seven Chakras including Access for Social Empowerment, AI for Science and Secure & Trusted AI. Which are correct?2026 · Prelims GS1 · Polity & Governance · AI governance
- Which connectivity projects form part of India's cooperation with ASEAN member countries? 1. Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Transport Project. 2. India–Myanmar–Thailand Trilateral Highway. 3. Agartala–Akhaura Rail Line.2026 · Prelims GS1 · Polity & Governance · India ASEAN connectivity
- Match India-supported projects with countries: A Mangdechhu Hydroelectric Project; B restoration of Stor Palace; C District Hospital at Dickoya; D Institute of Security and Law Enforcement Studies. Countries: 1 Maldives, 2 Afghanistan, 3 Bhutan, 4 Sri Lanka.2026 · Prelims GS1 · Polity & Governance · Development partnerships
- Which defence platforms in the list are manufactured/assembled in India? 1. Su-30MKI fighter aircraft. 2. T-90 MK-III tanks. 3. Akula-class nuclear submarine.2026 · Prelims GS1 · Polity & Governance · Defence manufacturing
- Consider migration-cooperation platforms: 1. Colombo Process decisions are legally binding when adopted by consensus. 2. Abu Dhabi Dialogue is a voluntary, non-binding consultation among Asian labour-origin and destination countries. 3. The Global Forum on Migration and Development is voluntary and non-binding. Which are correct?2026 · Prelims GS1 · Polity & Governance · Migration diplomacy
- Among WFP, UNICEF, UNHCR and ILO, how many have received the Nobel Peace Prize twice?2026 · Prelims GS1 · Polity & Governance · United Nations
- Match UN peacekeeping missions to their operating periods: A UNMIL; B MINURCAT; C MINUSTAH; D UNMISET. Periods: 1 2007–2010; 2 2002–2005; 3 2003–2018; 4 2004–2017.2026 · Prelims GS1 · Polity & Governance · UN peacekeeping
- Match BIMSTEC institutions with locations: A Cultural Industries Observatory; B Energy Centre; C Centre for Weather and Climate; D Technology Transfer Facility. Locations: 1 NOIDA; 2 Bengaluru; 3 Colombo; 4 Thimphu.2026 · Prelims GS1 · Polity & Governance · BIMSTEC
- Which Indian Army Corps–headquarters pair is incorrectly matched?2026 · Prelims GS1 · Polity & Governance · Indian Army commands
- Regarding Revamped Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan: 1. Its implementation runs from 1 April 2021 to 31 March 2026. 2. Its key purpose is to build PRI governance capacity for SDG delivery. 3. Central funding is 100% for every State and UT. Which are correct?2026 · Prelims GS1 · Polity & Governance · Panchayati Raj
- Which countries in the list are European Union members? 1. Belarus 2. Poland 3. Germany 4. Switzerland2026 · Prelims GS1 · Polity & Governance · European Union
- Match INTERPOL notices to functions: A Silver; B Blue; C Black; D Green. Functions: 1 information on unidentified bodies; 2 additional information on a person's identity/location/activity in an investigation; 3 warning about a person's criminal activity/threat; 4 identify and trace criminal assets.2026 · Prelims GS1 · Polity & Governance · INTERPOL notices
- During the German Chancellor's January 2026 India visit, which listed outcomes are NOT correct? 1. Ayurveda MoU with University of Hamburg. 2. Youth hockey MoU between Hockey India and German Hockey Federation. 3. A bilateral Indo-Pacific dialogue mechanism. 4. Opening/announcement of an Honorary German Consul in Lucknow.2026 · Prelims GS1 · Polity & Governance · India Germany relations
- Consider the following information about organizations and their functions: I. Directorate of Enforcement: Enforcement of Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018 - Works under Internal Security Division-I, Ministry of Home Affairs II. Directorate of Revenue Intelligence: Enforces provisions of Customs Act, 1962 - Works under Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance III. Directorate General of Systems and Data Management: Carrying out big data analytics to assist tax officers - Works under Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance. In how many of the above rows is the information correctly matched?2025 · Prelims GS1 · Polity & Governance · Polity & Governance
- Consider the following statements about the Rashtriya Gokul Mission: I. It is important for the upliftment of rural poor, as majority of low producing indigenous animals are with small and marginal farmers and landless labourers. II. It was initiated to promote indigenous cattle and buffalo rearing and conservation in a scientific and holistic manner. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?2025 · Prelims GS1 · Polity & Governance · Government Schemes
- Consider the following statements: I. Panchayats at the intermediate level exist in all States. II. To be eligible to be a Member of a Panchayat at the intermediate level, a person should attain the age of thirty years. III. The Chief Minister of a State constitutes a commission to review the financial position of Panchayats at the intermediate levels and to make recommendations regarding the distribution of net proceeds of taxes and duties, leviable by the State, between the State and Panchayats at the intermediate level. Which of the statements given above are not correct?2025 · Prelims GS1 · Polity & Governance · Polity & Governance
- Consider the following statements about Lokpal : I. The power of Lokpal applies to public servants of India, but not to the Indian public servants posted outside India. II. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a Member of the Parliament or a Member of the Legislature of any State or Union Territory, and only the Chief Justice of India, whether incumbent or retired, has to be its Chairperson. III. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a person of less than forty-five years of age on the date of assuming office as the Chairperson or Member, as the case may be. IV. Lokpal cannot inquire into the allegations of corruption against a sitting Prime Minister of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?2025 · Prelims GS1 · Polity & Governance · Polity & Governance
- Consider the following statements with regard to pardoning power of the President of India: I. The exercise of this power by the President can be subjected to limited judicial review. II. The President can exercise this power without the advice of the Central Government. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?2025 · Prelims GS1 · Polity & Governance · Polity & Governance
- Consider the following statements: I. On the dissolution of the House of the People, the Speaker shall not vacate his/her office until immediately before the first meeting of the House of the People after the dissolution. II. According to the provisions of the Constitution of India, a Member of the House of the People on being elected as Speaker shall resign from his/her political party. III. The Speaker of the House of the People may be removed from his/her office by a resolution of the House of the People passed by a majority of all the then Members of the House, provided that no resolution shall be moved unless at least fourteen days' notice has been given of the intention to move the resolution. Which of the statements given above are correct?2025 · Prelims GS1 · Polity & Governance · Polity & Governance
- Consider the following statements: I. If any question arises as to whether a Member of the House of the People has become subject to disqualification under the 10th Schedule, the President's decision in accordance with the opinion of the Council of Union Ministers shall be final. II. There is no mention of the word'political party' in the Constitution of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?2025 · Prelims GS1 · Polity & Governance · Polity & Governance
- Consider the following statements: Statement I: In India, State Governments have no power for making rules for grant of concessions in respect of extraction of minor minerals even though such minerals are located in their territories. Statement II: In India, the Central Government has the power to notify minor minerals under the relevant law. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?2025 · Prelims GS1 · Polity & Governance · Polity & Governance
- Consider the following statements about 'PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana': I. It targets installation of one crore solar rooftop panels in the residential sector. II. The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy aims to impart training on installation, operation, maintenance and repairs of solar rooftop systems at grassroot levels. III. It aims to create more than three lakhs skilled manpower through fresh skilling, and up-skilling, under scheme component of capacity building. Which of the statements given above are correct?2025 · Prelims GS1 · Polity & Governance · Government Schemes
- With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements : I. An Ordinance can amend any Central Act. II. An Ordinance can abridge a Fundamental Right. III. An Ordinance can come into effect from a back date. Which of the statements given above are correct?2025 · Prelims GS1 · Polity & Governance · Polity & Governance
- Consider the following pairs: State - Description. I. Arunachal Pradesh : The capital is named after a fort, and the State has two National Parks II. Nagaland : The State came into existence on the basis of a Constitutional Amendment Act III. Tripura : Initially a Part 'C' State, it became a centrally administered territory with the reorganization of States in 1956 and later attained the status of a full-fledged State. How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?2025 · Prelims GS1 · Polity & Governance · Polity & Governance
- With reference to India, consider the following: I. The Inter-State Council II. The National Security Council III. Zonal Councils. How many of the above are established as per the provisions of the Constitution of India?2025 · Prelims GS1 · Polity & Governance · Polity & Governance
- Consider the following statements: I. The Constitution of India explicitly mentions that in certain spheres the Governor of a State acts in his/her own discretion. II. The President of India can, of his/her own, reserve a bill passed by a State Legislature for his/her consideration without it being forwarded by the Governor of the State concerned. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?2025 · Prelims GS1 · Polity & Governance · Polity & Governance
- Consider the following pairs: Provision in the Constitution of India - Stated under. I. Separation of Judiciary from the Executive in the public services of the State: The Directive Principles of the State Policy II. Valuing and preserving of the rich heritage of our composite culture: The Fundamental Duties III. Prohibition of employment of children below the age of 14 years in factories: The Fundamental Rights. How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?2025 · Prelims GS1 · Polity & Governance · Polity & Governance
- Consider the following statements: With reference to the Constitution of India, if an area in a State is declared as Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule I. the State Government loses its executive power in such areas and a local body assumes total administration II. the Union Government can take over the total administration of such areas under certain circumstances on the recommendations of the Governor. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?2025 · Prelims GS1 · Polity & Governance · Polity & Governance
- With reference to India, consider the following pairs: Organization - Union Ministry. I. The National Automotive Board: Ministry of Commerce and Industry II. The Coir Board: Ministry of Heavy Industries III. The National Centre for Trade Information: Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises. How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?2025 · Prelims GS1 · Polity & Governance · Polity & Governance
- Consider the following subjects under the Constitution of India: I. List I-Union List, in the Sevent Schedule II. Extent of the executive power of a State III. Conditions of the Governor's office. For a constitutional amendment with respect to which of the above, ratification by the Legislatures of not less than one-half of the States is required before presenting the bill to the President of India for assent?2025 · Prelims GS1 · Polity & Governance · Polity & Governance
- With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements : I. The Governor of a State is not answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his/her office. II. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted or continued against the Governor during his/her term of office. III. Members of a State Legislature are not liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said within the House. Which of the statements given above are correct?2025 · Prelims GS1 · Polity & Governance · Polity & Governance
- How many Delimitation Commissions have been constituted by the Government of India till December 2023?2024 · Prelims GS1 · Polity & Governance · Polity & Governance
- The Constitution (71st Amendment) Act, 1992 amends the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution to include which of the following languages? 1. Konkani 2. Manipuri 3. Nepali 4. Maithili2024 · Prelims GS1 · Polity & Governance · Polity & Governance
- Which of the following statements are correct about the Constitution of India? 1. Powers of the Municipalities are given in Part IX A of the Constitution. 2. Emergency provisions are given in Part XVIII of the Constitution. 3. Provisions related to the amendment of the Constitution are given in Part XX of the Constitution.2024 · Prelims GS1 · Polity & Governance · Polity & Governance
- Which one of the following statements is correct as per the Constitution of India?2024 · Prelims GS1 · Polity & Governance · Polity & Governance
- Under which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India, has the Supreme Court of India placed the Right to Privacy?2024 · Prelims GS1 · Polity & Governance · Polity & Governance
- What are the duties of the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) as Head of the Department of Military Affairs? 1. Permanent Chairman of Chiefs of Staff Committee. 2. Exercise military command over the three Service Chiefs. 3. Principal Military Advisor to Defence Minister on all tri-service matters.2024 · Prelims GS1 · Polity & Governance · Current Affairs (Polity & Governance)
- Which of the following statements about the Ethics Committee in the Lok Sabha are correct? 1. Initially it was an ad-hoc Committee. 2. Only a Member of the Lok Sabha can make a complaint relating to unethical conduct of a member of the Lok Sabha. 3. This Committee cannot take up any matter which is sub-judice.2024 · Prelims GS1 · Polity & Governance · Current Affairs (Polity & Governance)
- Who was the Provisional President of the Constituent Assembly before Dr. Rajendra Prasad took over?2024 · Prelims GS1 · Polity & Governance · Polity & Governance
- As per Article 368 of the Constitution of India, the Parliament may amend any provision of the Constitution by way of: 1. Addition 2. Variation 3. Repeal2024 · Prelims GS1 · Polity & Governance · Polity & Governance
- Which of the following statements are correct in respect of a Money Bill in the Parliament? 1. Article 109 mentions special procedure in respect of Money Bills. 2. A Money Bill shall not be introduced in the Council of States. 3. The Rajya Sabha can either approve the Bill or suggest changes but cannot reject it. 4. Amendment to a Money Bill suggested by the Rajya Sabha have to be accepted by the Lok Sabha.2024 · Prelims GS1 · Polity & Governance · Polity & Governance
- The North Eastern Council (NEC) was established by the North Eastern Council Act, 1971. Subsequent to the amendment of NEC Act in 2002, the Council comprises which of the following members? 1. Governor of the Constituent State 2. Chief Minister of the Constituent State 3. Three Members to be nominated by the President of India 4. The Home Minister of India2024 · Prelims GS1 · Polity & Governance · Polity & Governance
- Consider the following statements regarding ‘Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam’: 1. Provisions will come into effect from the 18th Lok Sabha. 2. This will be in force for 15 years after becoming an Act. 3. There are provisions for the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes Women within the quota reserved for the Scheduled Castes.2024 · Prelims GS1 · Polity & Governance · Current Affairs (Polity & Governance)
- A Writ of Prohibition is an order issued by the Supreme Court or High Courts to:2024 · Prelims GS1 · Polity & Governance · Polity & Governance
- Consider the following statements: 1. It is the Governor of the State who recognizes and declares any community of that State as a Scheduled Tribe. 2. A community declared as a Scheduled Tribe in a State need not to be so in another State.2024 · Prelims GS1 · Polity & Governance · Polity & Governance
- With reference to Union Budget, consider the following statements: 1. The Union Finance Minister on behalf of the Prime Minister lays the Annual Financial Statement before both the Houses of Parliament. 2. At the Union level, no demand for a grant can be made except on the recommendation of the President of India.2024 · Prelims GS1 · Polity & Governance · Polity & Governance
- With reference to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, consider the following statements: While any resolution for the removal of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is under consideration: 1. He/She shall not preside. 2. He/She shall not have the right to speak. 3. He/She shall not be entitled to vote on the resolution in the first instance.2024 · Prelims GS1 · Polity & Governance · Polity & Governance
- With reference to the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements: 1. A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its dissolution. 2. A bill passed by the Lok Sabha and pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha. 3. A bill in regard to which the President of India notified his/her intention to summon the Houses to a joint sitting lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.2024 · Prelims GS1 · Polity & Governance · Polity & Governance
- With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements: 1. Prorogation of a House by the President of India does not require the advice of the Council of Ministers. 2. Prorogation of a House is generally done after the House is adjourned sine die but there is no bar to the President of India proroguing the House which is in session. 3. Dissolution of the Lok Sabha is done by the President of India who, save in exceptional circumstances, does so on the advice of the Council of Ministers.2024 · Prelims GS1 · Polity & Governance · Polity & Governance
- With reference to the Digital India Land Records Modernisation Programme, consider the following statements: 1. To implement the scheme, the Central Government provides 100% funding. 2. Under the Scheme, Cadastral Maps are digitized. 3. An initiative has been undertaken to transliterate the Records of Rights from local language to any of the languages recognized by the Constitution of India.2024 · Prelims GS1 · Polity & Governance · Current Affairs (Social Schemes)
- With reference to the ‘Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan’, consider the following statements: 1. This scheme guarantees a minimum package of antenatal care services to women in their second and third trimesters of pregnancy and six months post-delivery health care service in any government health facility. 2. Under this scheme, private sector health care providers of certain specialities can volunteer to provide services at nearby government health facilities.2024 · Prelims GS1 · Polity & Governance · Current Affairs (Social Schemes)
- With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan (PM-SYM) Yojana, consider the following statements: 1. The entry age group for enrolment in the scheme is 21 to 40 years. 2. Age specific contribution shall be made by the beneficiary. 3. Each subscriber under the scheme shall receive a minimum pension of Rs. 3000 per month after attaining the age of 60 years. 4. Family pension is applicable to the spouse and unmarried daughters.2024 · Prelims GS1 · Polity & Governance · Current Affairs (Social Schemes)
- With reference to the Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act, 2017, consider: (1) paid maternity leave is fixed as three months before and three months after delivery; (2) establishments with crèches must permit at least six visits by the mother each day; (3) a woman who already has two children receives a reduced leave entitlement for a subsequent child. Which statement set is correct?2019 · Prelims GS1 · Polity & Governance · Social Legislation